Just re-posting this as I had no replies and thought someone new maybe read this now.
Hello. I am hoping someone can help me out. With my first pregnancy 4 years ago, I had a high risk for down syndrome. I had all the tests done and everything turned out fine in the end and we have a beautiful boy.
My question is this - because I had a high risk with my first pregnancy, does that automatically mean I will have a high risk with any subsequent pregnancies? I know age and weight contribute to this and I am nearing 40, but I have lost 30 kgs since my first pregnancy. Does this make a great difference? I have been unable to find any answers about this.
Is there anyone who had a high risk with one pregnancy but not for subsequent pregnancies? Any information would be greatly appreciated.