My first time posting. Not sure if I have hit the right sub-category here but I'll give the rundown of my situation (and maybe my post can be moved to the relevant section if I've posted in the wrong area).
9 year stint of unprotected sex with my then husband. No pregnancy. All tests came back fine for me. He came back with low sperm, low volume, deformed sperm. He has since had a child with his new wife (no idea if they had fertility assistance or not, and was a bitter break up so not an option to ask him either).
Now in a same-sex relationship (for quite a few years)... Had a sperm donor and was doing DYI at home. Both trying at the same time. My partner fell pregnant straight away. 8 tries with me and nothing. No longer able to use the same sperm donor.
Went to fertility clinic for further investigations of 'infertility'. Extra tests done this time on top of the usual bloods and ultra sound were AMH and HSG. HSG was fine, AMH was low for my age. AMH was around a 7 and I am 32 (beckoning on 33).
During the recent times of trying DYI @ home I also tried taking clomid. 50mg from day 5. And second cycle 100mg at day 3. Always kept my regular 26 day cycle since I was 13 (even when on clomid) until the last cycle finished in October last year.
And when I got that period I knew something wasn't right when the breast tenderness didn't go away upon onset. Since then I have had up to 40 day cycles and all my regular symptoms have been way off.
Wondering if there could be a deeper issue here? Did I do damage taking the clomid? Does this mean I am officially in peri-menopause?
I am about to start IVF... But if something else could be the problem here... maybe I shouldn't be wasting my money just yet?
Anyone with any knowledge would be greatly appreciated!