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sparkle5301
24-05-2009, 09:22
I have succumbed to temping - wasn't going to do it, but after 9 months, it's amazing what a hormonal TTC mum will do :laughing:.
So can someone please explain to me, when you have a temp rise, is it because ovulation is ABOUT to happen, or because ovulation HAS occurred. And what is the time frame?

And when you get a temp rise, does it automatically mean you have ovulated, or your body has just tried to ovulate?

Thanks in advance to any charting masters that can help me out

BazzasMum
24-05-2009, 10:36
According to fert friend, the temp shift happens after ovulation. It's the progesterone which causes your basal temp to rise. I don't think you'd get the shift if you didn't ovulate :confused: but not too sure about that.

anemone
24-05-2009, 11:31
Hi Sparkle

I agree with the PP - the temp rise happens after O. It can be the next day or sometimes a couple of days afterwards, or some people (like me) have a slower rise over a few days. I think it just depends on how your body responds to the progesterone.

Most people need to do a few cycles to see a pattern. I reckon it's useful though, just as a cross-check of OPKs. I try not to get obsessive about it tho - but that's easier said than done.

Good luck!